Why is it that Jesus does not seem to answer their questions?

Open Line on January 18, 2025 Hour 2 @2:20

Question: When I read Jesus's answers to people's questions in the bible, it seemed like they don't match the question, is this because of the translation?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

https://www.moodyradio.org/radioplayer.aspx?episode=629035&hour=2

Summary of Answer:

Dr Michael Rydelnik says the reason Jesus does that is because He is omniscient. He knows what is in a man (end of John 2) and Jesus is unpredictable. Open Line producer, Tricia Mcmillan, gave an example of the rich young ruler in Mark 10. The rich young ruler asked: “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life” Jesus replied by asking another question: “Why do you call me good?” Dr Rydelnik explains that Jesus is trying to diagnose, not just for himself but helping the person think why is he asking that question, he is kind of probing what that he knows about the person. Another example that Dr Rydelnik gave is Luke 13. It is sort of an upside down view of the problem of evil. In Luke 13, some Galileans told Jesus about Pilate mixing the blood of Galileans with their sacrifices. Jesus knew their real question was whether those Galileans whose blood were mixed with the sacrifices were worst sinners? Jesus raised the question of another example of natural evil in the case of the eighteen who were killed when the tower of Siloam collapsed on them, were they more sinful? Jesus says unless you repent, you will perish as well and Jesus went on to tell the parable of the Barren Fig Tree which illustrates God’s patience and mercy on man and not wanting man to perish. It is an upside down answer from Jesus.

The definition of Christian Love by J.C.Ryle

Christian love will show itself in the general spirit and demeanor of a believer. It will make him kind, unselfish, good-natured, good-tempered, and considerate for others.

It will make him gentle, affable, and courteous, in all the daily relations of private life. It will make him thoughtful for others’ comfort, tender for others’ feelings, and more anxious to give pleasure than to receive. True love never envies others when they prosper, nor rejoices in the calamities of others when they are in trouble. At all times, it will believe, and hope, and try to put a good construction on others’ actions. And even at the worst, it will be full of pity, mercy, and compassion.

Why does the maps at the back of bibles describe it as Palestine?

Openline program on January 4, 2025 Hour 1 @16:17

Question:

2 listeners were looking at their maps at the back of the bible and found that it describes it as Palestine, for example, expansion of the church in Palestine or Palestine in new testament times. What is meant by this, shouldn't it be Israel instead?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

https://www.moodyradio.org/radioplayer.aspx?episode=626783&hour=1

Summary of Answer:

The word Palestine became a regional term when the Roman Emperor Hadrian renamed the land of Judea as Palestine. Emperor Hadrian did that because he was exasperated at the Jews for revolting against him in 135 AD and he renamed the region after the Philistines, who were the foes of Israel. In the New Testament, the term Palestine was never used except in the maps. It is significant now because now that the state of Israel exists, the state of Palestine has now become a controversial term.

Why do they still print the word Palestine in the maps?

Well, it became the term for centuries in scholarly literature, so if you are writing in the eighteenth , nineteenth century, that was the term that was used then. They did not use biblical terms, they use the term that was in that time. It's not like they have a political purpose when they do that, it's just a tradition.